Subject: Okay, I understand that now.
Author:
Posted on: 2016-05-13 09:43:00 UTC

I don't think I agree with it - it makes major assumptions about magic in North America in general, and Ilvermorny in particular, and I'm none too keen on the 'all [English-speaking] white cultures are interchangeable' notion in there - but I understand it. Which is what I was after.

So, follow-up question. Starting from the premise that Potterverse magic works the same everywhere, and that non-magical history there matches ours (including things like prevailing attitudes among the populace), how could JKR have used the existence of Native Americans in her writings in a way that wouldn't be [generally] seen as cultural appropriation?

(That's an open question; I'm happy for you to answer it, but you've already given one excellent and extensive answer, so I'm also fine if you want to step back and let someone else take it.)

hS

Reply Return to messages