Subject: Well...
Author:
Posted on: 2015-05-06 23:24:00 UTC

The point is that Scape is right and the word has additional meanings - ie, not what you think it means; in this case, it's offensive. In our current case, it doesn't really matter which definition is 'appropriate', since we're not arguing about the meaning of the word, we're arguing whether it's acceptable to use it.
Maybe an example will help: suppose I'll come and tell you that you're a son of a bitch. You'd be offended, right? The fact that in Hebrew it is also used as a compliment is irrelevant; you'd still be offended and you'd probably ask that I will apologise, no? Free speech isn't free beer, 'do whatever you want'. Having a right to free speech doesn't mean you have a right to offend other people, and other people can and will tell you to stop it. Free speech doesn't protect you from the consequences of what you say.
Anyway, dealing with the US legal system (which is, admittedly, very different from the Israeli system to which I am used), you're missing Dun & Bradstreet, Inc. v. Greenmoss Builders, Inc. (1985) which basically says that no, you can't slander people, even if you're not malicious.

I hope I didn't miss anything in here, I tend to lose myself in my argumentation process.

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