Subject: According to wiki, it's autosomal dominant
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Posted on: 2009-06-20 10:49:00 UTC

Which if I remember my genetics correctly suggests to me that heterozygotes (people with one copy of the gene) will display the syndrome.

Which means that if one parent is a heterozygote and one parent is a non-sufferer, their children have a fifty fifty chance of having it. If one parent is a homozygote (has two copies of the gene) then all their children will have it.

Wiki seems to have a very comprehensive article on the subject here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osteogenesis_imperfecta which should probably all be taken with a pinch of salt, but if you want any biological terms explicated and wiki doesn't have a nice link to a page for them, feel free to PM me on LJ. You have my LJ, right?

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