Subject: Not quite
Author:
Posted on: 2015-06-27 19:34:00 UTC

To say a corporation (whether it is for-profit or not) does have rights. They are not the same as a natural person, but they do have them. One need look no further than Citizens United v. FEC. Court held that corporations have the right to engage in political speech. There was also Dartmouth College v. Woodward an 1819 case that extended the Contracts Clause to Juridical Persons (corporations). There are a host of others, though the citations escape me at the moment that extend varying levels of speech protection for a corporation. Corporations are also able to own property.

In short, corporations do have rights. They are not in the same bundle of rights that a natural person owns, but they still have rights.

Now on to the original question about Free Association, this argument has been made during desegregation. And it lost. Court specifically required private organizations and businesses to desegregate.

Of course this does not get into the issue of a Sole-Proprietorship. Under the law those do not exist independently of the owner, so there could theoretically be a better argument there, but it would still likely fail.

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